Pharmascience Inc v Janssen Inc 2024 FCA 10 Locke JA: de Montigny CJ, Goyette JA
affg Janssen Inc v Pharmascience Inc 2022 FC 62 Manson J
2,655,335 / paliperidone palmitate / INVEGA SUSTENNA / NOC
This decision addresses a tricky and interesting point regarding implied licences
in the context of the first prong of the Corlac 2011 FCA 228 [162] test for
inducement, which requires that “the act of infringement must have been
completed by the direct infringer.” Janssen’s 335 Patent relates to a dosing
regimen for long-acting injectable paliperidone palmitate formulations for the
treatment of schizophrenia and related disorders. It claims a dosage regimen
comprising a first loading dose of 150 mg-eq of paliperidone palmitate on day 1; a
second loading dose of 100 mg-eq on day 8; and subsequent maintenance doses
of 75 mg-eq monthly thereafter [2]. Pharmascience proposed to sell the loading
doses, but not the maintenance doses, which would be supplied by Janssen [17].
In this NOC proceeding, Pharmascience brought a motion for summary trial on
the basis of non-infringement, arguing that even though the end-users, such as
physicians and patients, would practice the invention, there would be no direct
infringement because any end-user must be taken to have an implied licence from
Janssen to use the maintenance dose for any purpose, including using it as part of
the patented combination.
At first instance, Manson J held in favour of Janssen, finding that Pharmascience
would induce infringement of the 335 Patent with its generic version of INVEGA
SUSTENNA [3]: see here. The action proceed to trial on the patent validity issues
raised by Pharmascience. Janssen again prevailed at trial, 2022 FC 1218. An
appeal has been heard and is under reserve [3]. In my post on Manson J’s
decision, I had noted that his decision in this case was essentially a companion
case to Janssen v Apotex 2022 FC 107, which involved the same patent and the
same type of generic product. However, the issues raised on appeal were quite
different, as the Apotex appeal turned on the second prong of the Corlac test: see
here.
This appeal therefore turned on whether the end-users, who purchased the
maintenance doses from Janssen, should be taken to have an implied licence to
use those maintenance doses to practice the invention in combination with the
loading doses supplied by Pharmascience.
Locke JA started by summarizing the basic rule as follows: “it is clear that the sale
of a patented article without restriction includes the right to use that article as the
purchaser pleases,” unless a restriction is brought home to the purchaser on sale.
He cited ample authority for this proposition [16], [15]. While Janssen did not
dispute this rule, Janssen relied on MacLennan 2008 FCA 35, in which the
patent related to “a saw tooth and tooth holder combination.” The tooth and
tooth holder were separate parts, and the combination was attached to the
periphery of a circular saw disc for feller heads in the forestry industry:
MacLennan [4]. If the saw struck rocks while logging, individual teeth and
sometimes also the holders would be broken without damaging the saw disc. The
patentee sold both the tooth holder and the teeth themselves, and the defendant
manufactured and sold replacement teeth to be used by the patentee’s customers
with tooth holders purchased from the patentee [24]. Janssen argued that
MacLennan was “on all fours” with the case at hand [25]. Pharmascience tried to
distinguish MacLennan on the basis that the issue concerned the extent of the
implied right of a purchaser to repair [26]. Locke JA quite rightly rejected this as
being a misreading of MacLennan [26], [27].
How then can we reconcile MacLennan with the rule that the purchaser of an
embodiment of the patented invention has the right to do as they please with it?
Janssen argued that “the jurisprudence concerning implied license is limited to
the patented article itself” [17]. Locke JA accepted this argument, saying that in
MacLennan and similarly in Angelcare 2022 FC 507 (here), “the patented
invention constituted a combination invention and therefore, the sale of a mere
component of it was insufficient to grant the implied right to use the entire
combination” [29]. He therefore held that:
[29] [T]he sale of a mere component of [a combination invention is]
insufficient to grant the implied right to use the entire combination.
To grant an implied licence, the sale of the entire combination had
to occur, or at least, as in Slater Steel [(1968) 55 CPR 61 (Ex Ct)],
the parties’ intended use of the component at the time of sale
contemplated its use in the patented combination.
So, no implied licence arose in this case because Janssen sold the maintenance
doses separately and this does not imply a licence to use the combination. That
justifies the result in this case, as it means that the prescribers or patients who
use the Pharmascience loading doses in combination with the Janssen
maintenance doses are direct infringers.
But there is a problem. When does an implied licence arise? What about when
Janssen sells a maintenance dose that is used in combination with a Janssen
loading dose? Surely the users are not infringers. Under the first clause of Locke
JA’s statement, the sale of the maintenance dose does not grant an implied
licence to the use the combination, for the same reason as when the loading doses
are sold by Pharmascience. Perhaps an implied licence is granted under the
second clause, since it is certainly true in that case that “the parties’ intended use
of the component at the time of sale contemplated its use in the patented
combination.” The problem is that is also true when Janssen sells a maintenance
dose that is then used in combination with a Pharmascience loading dose. If the
second branch saves the user when the loading dose is sold by Janssen, it also
saves the user when the loading dose is sold by Pharmascience. The only way that
it is an infringement to use the Janssen maintenance doses in combination with
the Pharmascience loading doses, but not with the Janssen loading doses, is if the
sale by Janssen is accompanied by a restricted implied licence, which allows the
use of the Janssen product only with another Janssen product.
The root of the problem is the notion that when a licence is implied, it is a licence
“without restriction [that] includes the right to use that article as the purchaser
pleases.” The licence that arises in MacLennan, Angelcare and in this case, is a
restricted licence, to use the article in combination with another article that is
also sold by the patentee. There is no way to reconcile these cases with the notion
that a sale implies an unrestricted licence to use the article, no matter how the
conditions of the sale itself are qualified. If the licence to use the product is
unrestricted it doesn’t matter whether we say it arises when the product is sold,
or only when the combination is sold, or what the intent of the parties is; the only
way to get an answer that is consistent with the cases such as MacLennan is if the
implied licence is restricted. Moreover, we can’t even say that the general rule is
that the sale in the context of a combination invention grants a restricted implied
licence to use the article in combination with other articles sold by the patentee,
because in Slater Steel the patentee only sold one component of the combination
(namely a power line reinforcing rod), and the other part of the combination (the
power line) was supplied by third parties. In Slater Steel, the sale did convey an
unrestricted implied licence.
Thus, I would suggest that the basic rule that “the sale of a patented article
without restriction includes the right to use that article as the purchaser pleases,”
while well supported by the authorities cited by Locke JA, is not sound as a
general proposition. The sale of a patented article will often imply a licence to the
use the article on the particular facts, but this is not the same as saying that it
necessarily implies an unrestricted licence to use.
The difficulty arises because the proposition that the sale implies a right to use is
based on logic that conflates ownership rights with patent rights. Consider the
following passage from the decision of Pratte JA in Eli Lilly v Apotex (1996), 66
CPR (3d) 329, 343 which was quoted with approval by the SCC in Eli Lilly [1998]
2 SCR 129 [99]:
A patentee has a monopoly. By virtue of his patent, he has, says
section 42 of the Patent Act, "the exclusive right, privilege and
liberty", during the term of the patent, "of making, constructing and
using the invention and selling it to others to be used". If a patentee
makes a patented article, he has, in addition to his monopoly, the
ownership of that article. And the ownership of a thing involves, as
everybody knows, "the right to possess and use the thing, the right
to its produce and accession, and the right to destroy, encumber or
alienate it" [quoting Jowitt's Dictionary of English Law]. If the
patentee sells the patented article that he made, he transfers the
ownership of that article to the purchaser. This means that,
henceforth, the patentee no longer has any right with respect to the
article which now belongs to the purchaser who, as the new owner,
has the exclusive right to possess, use, enjoy, destroy or alienate it.
It follows that, by selling the patented article that he made, the
patentee impliedly renounces, with respect to that article, to his
exclusive right under the patent of using and selling the invention.
After the sale, therefore, the purchaser may do what he likes with
the patented article without fear of infringing his vendor's patent.
The logic is that ownership of the thing includes the right to use it, and therefore
the transfer of the thing transfers to the right to use it. But ownership rights in
the tangible product and patent rights relating to that product are distinct, as
Pratte JA himself recognizes, and as a consequence, transfer or ownership of
tangible product embodying the patent rights does not necessarily imply any
transfer of patents rights.
This is illustrated by Eli Lilly itself. The SCC held that “it is clear that, in the
absence of express conditions to the contrary, a purchaser of a licensed article is
entitled to deal with the article as he sees fit, so long as such dealings do not
infringe the rights conferred by the patent” [101] (my emphasis). The SCC
accepted that “the rights of use and sale” are inherent in the unrestricted
purchase of a licensed article [98], but this does not necessarily extend to the
right of making. The purchaser had bought bulk product from a licensed vendor
and reformulated it into final-dosage form. The SCC held that this reformulation
did not constitute “making” [101], but it is clear that if it had, that would have
constituted infringement. On its face, Eli Lilly holds only that a licence to use and
sell are implied by an unrestricted sale, not a licence of all patent rights. Now, this
is not inconsistent with the rule stated by Locke JA, which was only that the right
to use is implied. The cases cited usually include the right to sell as well. But Eli
Lilly shows that transfer of ownership in the tangible property embodying a
patented invention is separate from the patent rights.
If the transfer of ownership in the thing does not necessarily transfer the right to
make, as is clear from Eli Lilly, on what principle does it necessarily transfer the
right to use? One answer is that the right to use is inherent in the right of
ownership. This was the position taken by the JCPC in National Phonograph v
Menck (1911) 28 RPC 229 (JCPC) 245, in which Lord Shaw began with the
principle that the owner of “ordinary goods” is entitled to “use and dispose of
these as he thinks fit,” so that a transfer of the right of ownership transfers that
right to use and sell the goods. An implied patent licence to use and sell was seen
as a way of reconciling that principle with the patentee’s patent rights: Menck
245.
But it is not strictly true that the owner of ordinary goods has the right to “use
and dispose of these as he thinks fit,” because many rights and obligations
distinct from the ownership right may constrain the owner’s right to use the
goods they own. For example, if I own a car, I do not have the right to drive over
the speed limit on the highway, and by the same token, if I sell the car to you, you
do not acquire the right to exceed the speed limit. Similarly, if I own a quantity of
an unpatented drug, I nonetheless do not have the right to use it for a patented
purpose, unless I have a licence from the patentee. If I sell that drug to you, I
clearly do not transfer the right to use it for the patented purpose, because I am
not the patentee.
In response to this, it might be said that the prohibition on speeding is imposed
by the state, not by me. My sale to you does not imply that no one else will
interfere with your use of the car, but only that I will not interfere with your use
of the car. But if I park my car in my own driveway, my sale of the car to you does
not give you the right to park in my driveway, even if you might find it convenient
to do so. That is because my ownership rights in the car and my rights in my land
are separate, and a grant of one does not imply a grant of the other.
The general point is that the transfer of ownership rights in a tangible product
good does not generally imply a licence to use those goods free of any other rights
that the vendor might have that potentially restrict what the purchaser wants to
do with the purchased goods. And it is clear my sale of a tangible thing that I own
cannot transfer patent rights I do not own. But what if I do own the patent rights
as well as the ownership rights? Is there something special about patent rights
such that an unrestricted licence to use must always be implied in such a case?
Suppose P discovers a new drug, call it ‘tramifloxin,’ which P discovered is useful
in treating ulcers. P gets a patent on the drug per se and successfully markets it
for treating ulcers under the brand name ULCEX. P’s product patent on
tramifloxin ultimately expires and P exits the market entirely, leaving it to the
generics. But because P has expertise in tramifloxin, it continues to research new
uses, and discovers, surprisingly and unexpectedly, that tramifloxin is also useful
in treating psoriasis. P then get a second patent for the use of tramifloxin in
treating psoriasis. P then successfully markets and sells tramifloxin, under the
brand name PSOREX, for treating psoriasis. In that case, P’s sale of tramifloxin
would not grant anyone else a licence to use tramifloxin to treat it psoriasis. But
suppose P did not exit the market for ulcer treatment after the product patent
expired, but instead continued to sell ULCEX. Would P’s sale of ULCEX be
accompanied by an implied licence to use it to treat psoriasis? Would it matter if
P sold ULCEX through an authorized generic?
What if P discovered and patented the psoriasis use before its patent on the
tramifloxin per se expired, and while it was still actively marketing ULCEX.
Would it matter if ULCEX was the bigger market? Would the sale of tramifloxin
under the ULCEX brand imply a licence to use it to treat psoriasis? It might be
said that the answer is yes, unless P gives notice that it is to be used only for
treating ulcers. But that is not desirable either for P or for society. P does not
want the use of ULCEX to be restricted to treating ulcers. It is in the interest of
both P and society for purchasers to develop new off-label purposes, as that will
expand P’s market and cure more diseases for the benefit of society. What P
wants is for ULCEX not to be used to treat psoriasis. In response to that, it might
be said that P should give notice on the ULCEX that it is not to be used to treat
psoriasis. But how could P have given such notice before P knew that tramifloxin
could be used for treating psoriasis? Does that mean that the stock of ULCEX that
was in circulation before P obtained the patent can now be used to treat
psoriasis? Further, if it was a third party, not P, that had obtained the psoriasis
use patent, the person purchasing ULCEX from P would not get an implied
licence to use it to treat psoriasis, regardless of whether P gave any kind of notice
on the ULCEX. Why should P be in a worse position than that third party?
Whether P holds the patent or a third party does makes no difference to the
purchaser, who in either case will be is ‘surprised’ (or not) to discover that
ULCEX cannot be used to treat psoriasis. Patent rights are strict liability, and the
mere fact that a purchaser might not know that it does not have unrestricted
rights to use has never been sufficient grounds to imply a licence. For example, if
P sold the ULCEX to a intermediary subject to an express restriction that it could
not be resold or used for the purpose of treating psoriasis, a purchaser from the
intermediary would not acquire a right to use it for the patented use: Isler (1906)
1 Ch 605, 611 (CA). Of if P had assigned the use patent to a third party before
selling the ULCEX, the purchaser would clearly not acquire a licence to use it to
treat psoriasis: Betts v Willmott (1871), LR 6 Ch App 239, 244.
I am not arguing for any particular answer to these questions. My argument is
only that these are difficult questions and it is not obvious that a simple rule that
the sale of the product implies a licence to use the patent. Whether a licence
should be implied is a question that should be answered on the facts, and not on
the basis of a broad rule. These examples are somewhat artificial, but that is
because it is true that a sale of a product will often imply a right to use the
patented technology embodied in that product.
On that note, it might be said that the true rule is that if P sells V a product that
can only be used in a way that would infringe P’s patent, then a licence to use
should be implied. Most of the leading cases relied on by Locke JA were of this
type — the patent at issue claimed a product, and the use of the product would
necessarily infringe, so when the patentee sells that product, it would necessarily
be accompanied by an implied licence to use the product. But this theory runs
right into MacLennan, as the patentee in that case sold the tooth holder which
could only be used in the patented combination. That is why Locke JA was forced
to restrict the rule to a case in which the entire product was sold, or the entire
combination was sold, or in which the patentee sold only one component but
intended it to be used in the patented combination. At this point, we do not have
much of a general rule left. What is the difference between stating a general rule
that is tailored to a set of very specific circumstances, and simply saying that a
licence will be implied when it is reasonable to do so on the facts?
This brings me back to my original point. Patent rights and rights of ownership of
an embodiment of the invention are separate rights. The transfer of ownership
does not necessarily imply any transfer of the patent rights. It is clear from Eli
Lilly that the sale does not imply a licence to make. There is no difference in
principle in respect of a right to use. It may be that it is more common that a
licence to use will be implied from a sale on the facts, but that is not a matter of
principle. In the context of combinations, an implied licence to use may be
restricted, or unrestricted; that turns on the facts, and is not a matter principle. I
suggest that the general point that emerges from all this is simply that there is no
general principle that sale of a product implied a licence to use. Whether an
implied licence accompanies the sale is a matter for the specific facts.
Locke JA was in a difficult position. The basic rule that “the sale of a patented
article without restriction includes the right to use that article as the purchaser
pleases,” is supported by ample authority. But that rule is inconsistent with
MacLennan, which was clearly correctly decided. Locke JA had to find some way
to restrict the scope of the general rule. The distinction he chose is intuitively
appealing, but I have argued that it is ultimately unsatisfactory. With that said, I
can’t think of a better approach, short of recognizing that the basic rule is itself
unsound as a general proposition.